Getting back on topic...
One notable item I found in a different article on the topic said:
Scharf's complaint was referred to Plymouth police to investigate possible criminal violations, as well as the Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco, Firearms and Explosives and the Federal Bureau of Investigation. Both federal entities submitted findings to the Department of Justice, which declined to prosecute, in part, because the straw purchase involved fewer than 50 guns, according to Kaufman's report.
I don't know if that's just an excuse they used to avoid charging a police officer or if that's a standard policy. If it's a standard policy I think using 50 firearms as the threshold for charging someone with a straw purchase is WAY too much. That means pretty much any of the 'gangbanger's girlfriends' that buy guns for their criminals would never get charged (which seems like the case). Fix that crap!
This issue also highlights the gray areas around the law for straw purchases. What is really the key distinction that crosses the line? If I buy a gun and a week layer decide I dislike it and sell it that's legal. There was no intent to get the gun to the eventual buyer at time of sale. If I buy a gun to give a family member (or anyone) as a gift, that's legal. There is an intent that the gun is actually going to a different person at time of sale here but gifting is acceptable. If a gangbanger's girlfriend buys a gun for her boyfriend knowing that he is not allowed to purchase or possess a gun that's a straw sale, because there is an active intent to thwart the law. However, in the case of this news article, there was intent at time of sale, it was not a gift, but the eventual recipient was known to be legally able to possess the gun. Yet it was a crime. Is it because the recipient was not from the state that makes it a crime?
What if the situation were slightly different? Say both initial buyer and eventual recipient were both from MN. But one guy forgot his license that day and there was a hot sale on the last gun in inventory so the friend buys it and then sells it to him later, knowing he does have a permit to purchase in MN? That would still be a straw sale but seemingly only on a technicality. Just curious what other folks think...